Genocide in gaza: true or false?
I hope this won't create a wave of emotions that will suppress any rational discussion.
In addition, this post isn't about the suffering of Palestinians in gaza cause it's pretty clear they are going through hell. This is about the genocide accusations of Israel.
I'm not an expert on international law, but recently, I deep dived a bit into this, and from what I understand (please correct me if I'm wrong):
Unless one can show an official plan from the Israeli government and decision makers to kill Palestinians just because they are Palestinians - regardless of whether they are militants or not - then genocide doesn't apply. In order to apply, one must prove Israel is intentionally targeting Palestinian civilians just because they are in Gaza, regardless of their actions.
The absolute number of civilians that were killed is not a factor. Otherwise, USA genocided japan after bombing Hiroshima/Nagasaki, and the British genocided the Germans after bombing Dresden/Hamburg. In both cases, a lot of civilians were killed.
If all Israeli strikes were aimed towards militants while complying with international law demands (proportionality, intelligence, notification, ammunition, etc), then collateral damage is horrible, but striking is allowed. In addition, even if Israel violates #2, it is a war crime, but not a genocide.
So my question:
Is there any proof for #1? A "smoking gun" type of proof?
Is there any proof that Israel violates #2? If so, what is the percentage of violations compared to the total pool of strikes?